In a country where everyone wants a boy, each family continues having babies till they have a boy. After some time, what is the proportion of boys to girls in the country? (Assuming probability of having a boy or a girl is the same)
“very simple”. Half the couples have boys first, and stop. The rest have a girl. Of those, half have a boy second, and so on.
So suppose there are N couples. There will be N boys.
1/2 have a boy and stop: 0 girls
1/4 have a girl, then a boy: N/4 girls
1/8 have 2 girls, then a boy: 2*N/8 girls
1/16 have 3 girls, then a boy: 3*N/16 girls
1/32 have 4 girls, then a boy: 4*N/32 girls
Total: N boys and
1N 2N 3N 4N
– + – + – + — +… = ~N
Therefore, the proportion of boys to girls will be pretty close to 1:1